Switch from 50:1 to 60:1?

[andoman]

Calling all mathematicians!

I'll agree that the point is true in theory, but I challenge anyone (even Jake!) to be able to tell the difference at the throttle resulting from the ultra minute mixture change due to going from 50:1 oil ratio to 60:1 oil ratio.
Please read on before throwing all the anecdotes at me.

I'll leave the math to someone smarter than I. However, think about the fact that the ideal air/fuel mixture is 15:1 and were talking about a change from 1 part in 50 to 1 part in 60 in only one part of the original 16. I'm betting that is a change so minute that it couldn't even be accounted for with adjustments so course as jets, clips, and needle taper.

Again, I'll leave the math to the arithmeticians. Perhaps, after lots of mathematics (please show your work!), someone can equate the actual mixture change by changing oil ratios to a common change in jetting. I.e, "going from 50:1 to 60:1 oil ratio is like changing your needle clip 1/20th of a step down on an N3CH taper needle, or going from a 168 main to a 168.28 main at the average fuel volumes burned by a 250cc two stroke in the middle of the RPM range at standard atmosphere."
Until someone does the volumetric comparisons I simply will not be convinced.
The answer to the question as to why one may notice a reduction in spooge when they go down to 60:1 is obvious: were talking about only the percentage of oil and not the ratio of oil to fuel in an overall ratio with air.
A change of 50:1 to 60:1 is a change from approx. 2% to 1.66% oil. Enough to notice a less messy tailpipe.

I intend no disrespect nor am I trolling for a heated debate. I'm truly curious. My Forrest Gump mind tells me the math, if I could do it accurately, wouldn't validate the accepted postulate that a change from 50:1 to 60:1 oil ratio is a significant enough change in mixture to re-jet.